Tag Archives: Pakistan

Speech of Mahatma Gandhi at a Prayer Meeting


Location: NEW DELHI,
Date: December 6, 1947

Brothers and Sisters,

You heard the bhajan and the Ramdhun sung by Subbulakshmi. She is new to Delhi. Usually she gives music recitals. One ought to lose oneself while singing bhajans and Ramdhun. Today you must have realized why people are so keen to hear her. She has a melodious voice. I welcomed her message offering to come and sing here.

Today I do not wish to take more than 15 minutes. Yesterday I took 25 minutes which was too long. I am ashamed of it. I must train myself to finish within 15 minutes. Today I intend to take only 15 minutes and leave out what cannot be covered within that time. I had a letter from a friend yesterday. I have only been able to read a part of it. I have another letter today which I have not been able to go through. I must ask to be excused. The letter which I have read in part says that I am too simple a man, that I do not know how the world’s affairs are run and am apt to be deceived. The correspondent also explains the nature of the deception and cautions me to be careful. He asks me to see what is happening in Pakistan and suggests that we should do the same here. That we should take revenge I do not agree. We cannot burn the houses of the Muslims. However humble those houses may be they are as dear to their owners as the palaces of millionaires may be to them. It is in these houses that they live. When a Muslim has to go to Pakistan he suffers. Continue reading →

Why use GDP (nominal) instead of GDP (PPP) when comparing two nations?


For example:

In India majority of people are poor, and receive subsidized grains (like 1 kilo rice for 3 Rs, kerosene etc. from PDS shops.

In America poor people are supported by Government by food stamps and social security cheques.

Now comparing two nations, GDP (PPP) wise,

Obviously majority of Indians are poor, and majority of them get cheap- subsidized stuff, the purchasing power parity of India may look better than Americans.

But does it really mean India is financially more powerful than America just because Indians can buy more stuff in local market compared to Americans?

No, because financial activity is not limited to local market.

We’ve to import crude oil from Middle east and buy jet-planes, missiles from Russia,France and Israel.

We’ve buy pulses and onions from Africa and Pakistan(!), Those people are not going to sell us stuff with subsidy in Rupees, like we get in our local market.

They’ll ask hard dollars (or gold or diamonds) as payment. So there, in international market, America can purchase more crude oil, fighter-jets, missiles and onions compared to India, even though its GDP-PPP wise it may not be powerful as India.

Even China can buy more stuff internationally than we can, because our forex reserve is only 270 billion, while Chinese got 1400 billion $!

GDP at PPP gives us only picture of how much stuff we can buy within our country.

GDP at nominal rate ($) gives us bigger-picture of how much stuff  we can buy internationally.

Using GDP (nominal), it becomes easier to compare two nations’ financial strength, by comparing their ability to purchase in international market in same currency (dollars). The one who has more $$, can purchase more stuff internationally.

So bigger the GDP (Nominal), powerful a country is financially. While in case of GDP(PPP) we cannot say with confidence that bigger the GDP (PPP) is, powerful a country  is financially, because they may be heavily-subsidizing it.

#As described by Mrunal

Food security related statistics for India


  • The Global Hunger Index is calculated as an average of (1) proportion of the population that is undernourished (in %), (2) prevalence of underweight in children under five (in %) and (3) proportion of children dying before the age of five (in %). For India, the respective numbers are 22, 43.5 and 6.9.
  • According to FAO, about 25% of world’s undernourished live in India.

Why use GDP (nominal) instead of GDP (PPP) when comparing two nations?


For example:

In India majority of people are poor, and receive subsidized grains (like 1 kilo rice for 3 Rs, kerosene etc. from PDS shops.

In America poor people are supported by Government by food stamps and social security cheques.

Now comparing two nations, GDP (PPP) wise,

Obviously majority of Indians are poor, and majority of them get cheap- subsidized stuff, the purchasing power parity of India may look better than Americans.

But does it really mean India is financially more powerful than America just because Indians can buy more stuff in local market compared to Americans?

No, because financial activity is not limited to local market.

We’ve to import crude oil from Middle east and buy jet-planes, missiles from Russia,France and Israel.

We’ve buy pulses and onions from Africa and Pakistan(!), Those people are not going to sell us stuff with subsidy in Rupees, like we get in our local market.

They’ll ask hard dollars (or gold or diamonds) as payment. So there, in international market, America can purchase more crude oil, fighter-jets, missiles and onions compared to India, even though its GDP-PPP wise it may not be powerful as India.

Even China can buy more stuff internationally than we can, because our forex reserve is only 270 billion, while Chinese got 1400 billion $!

GDP at PPP gives us only picture of how much stuff we can buy within our country.

GDP at nominal rate ($) gives us bigger-picture of how much stuff  we can buy internationally.

Using GDP (nominal), it becomes easier to compare two nations’ financial strength, by comparing their ability to purchase in international market in same currency (dollars). The one who has more $$, can purchase more stuff internationally.

So bigger the GDP (Nominal), powerful a country is financially. While in case of GDP(PPP) we cannot say with confidence that bigger the GDP (PPP) is, powerful a country  is financially, because they may be heavily-subsidizing it.